Anselm, Calvin, and Jesus
There are two great traditions that have influenced Christendom concerning the meaning of the death of Jesus, This is an unusual situation since most people die without any
implications of the meaning of their deaths. Anselm has given a theory that has become the
accepted view in the Roman Catholic tradition. John Calvin has given us a theory of the I. Anselm Anselm stresses the importance of the honor of God and that all beings including angels should give obedience. He has a major emphasis on the number of people to be saved would be the number of angels who sinned in rebellion against God. The honor due to God, if given, keeps man from sin. If the honor is not given, as it was not in rebellion, then man sins. God cannot simply forgive for that would wipe out the distinctions between the guilty and the not guilty, and "this is unbecoming to God." p. 203) Because man has neglected to honor God completely, Anselm notes, "Therefore the honor taken
away must be repaid, or punishment must follow, otherwise, either God will not be just to himself,
or he will be weak in respect to both parties, and this it is impious even to think of. " (p. 207) If
man does not repay the honor, then God takes it in the form of punishment.
The predicament that man is in is expressed in Anselm's words, "Therefore, consider it settled
that, without satisfaction, that is, without voluntary payment of the debt, God can neither pass by Rather than the motive of agape, Anselm argues that God must finish what he began or
he would be a failure. "Therefore is it necessary for him to perfect in human nature what he has
begun. But this as we have already said, cannot be accomplished save by a complete expiation of Thus we have a debt owed by man and he cannot pay it. Only God can pay it, but he does not owe it. The solution is the Incarnation in which the God-man takes to himself human
nature and pays the debt. He wrote: "For God will not do it, because he has no debt to pay, Perhaps one only need to ask the question why could not the perfect obedience of Christ
be sufficient to give the honor required to God. Why a death? Anselm declares that "Now,
nothing can be more severe or difficult for man to do for God's honor, than to suffer death This is a beautiful piece of theology and it has been a major influence in the Catholic tradition. However, it has little to do with the words of Jesus concerning his own death. It says a lot about Anselm’s own time and the feudalistic society. II. Calvin Let us begin by recalling some of the view of Calvin in his Institutes. Probably no
better sentence will serve as a beginning than this one; "Our acquittal is in this--that the guilt
which made us liable to punishment was transferred to the head of the Son of God (Isa.53:12) Much of the direction of Calvin's theory comes from the themes in Isa 53. In fact he
quotes this passage 7 times in the one chapter. Calvin points out that "he was bruised for our
iniquities," that he "bore our infirmities," and these expressions point up that he undertook and Calvin does quote in the context of his exposition other passages of Scripture which are
presumed affirmations of his penal theory. For example, Romans 5:8 declares that God
commendeth his love toward us, in that while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us. Therefore The idea of God expressed in Calvin seems demanding and harsh. This grows out of the
idea of the holiness of God in which God has moral absolutes that must be obeyed by humans
or they must be dealt with in the penalty related to their sin. Strangely enough, the words In spite of referring to these great passages, Calvin develops his penal theory that refers more to a sacrificial system than the New Covenant. Even then the sacrificial system is misused since it was given by God for the spiritual education and development of Israel in their worship of God. It was not a propitiation in its origination.
One question concerns the issue of substitution. How is it possible for one person to suffering in another's place in moral issues? Someone else can pay my legal debts, but no one else can pay my moral debts. Some Reformed theologians defend the substitution by saying that "the transfer of penal
debt is well nigh, if not entirely, impossible among men. But in the case of Christ, which is
altogether unique, because in it a situation obtained which has no parallel, all the conditions Even the Scripture passages quoted as supporting the substitution idea do not really support the theory. Consider the following references used: John 1:29 ..._ Behold the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world .... " We admit that Jesus is the Lamb of God, but taking away sin is can be done without a penal theory as required by Calvin and Anselm. 2 Corinthians, 5:21, "F or our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God. " Does this really mean any more than the righteous one lived among men under the conditions of the sinful world? The theory of Calvin and Anselm has nothing to say about the previous two verses which are important. Verse 19 states ' '... God was in Christ reconciling the world to himself not counting their trespasses against them, and entrusting to us the message of reconciliation." If our trespasses have not been counted against us, what does this do to the requirement of a penalty being paid? Gal 3:13, "Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law, having become a curse for us--
for it is written "cursed be every one who hangs on a tree_" There appears to be a vicarious
element here until you think about the passage and its context. Because Christ was nailed to Heb. 9:28, "So Christ, having been offered to bear the sins of many, will appear a second
time, not to deal with sin but to save those who are eagerly waiting for him." This would appear
to be vicarious in nature, but the context points toward the new covenant which was instituted
by Christ by his death. Chapter 8 quotes extensively from Jeremiah and the promised new
covenant that would come and the forgiveness of sin associated with it. There is the contrast in
chapter 9 of the first and second covenants and that Christ is the mediator of a new covenant I Peter 2:24. "He himself bore our sins in his body on the tree, that we might die to sin
and live to righteousness, By his wounds you have been healed." Are we driven to conclude a
penal theory out of this passage? Our sins needed a solution. They could be paid for in the It seems possible to conclude that the passages quoted do not compel us to adopt a penal
theory of the death of Jesus. Instead, the context of the passages suggest that the issue of
fulfilling the requirements of the law are rejected. Perhaps it is time to look anew at the meaning Both Anselm and Calvin presume the righteousness of God as a standard and the
standard must be met in terms of punishing sinners. Martin Luther's experience was at first with
the idea of the righteousness of God as a standard which he could not attain. He hated God for III. JESUS Certainly the most important words about the meaning of the death of Jesus come from the founder himself Three of the Gospels record the words, and they are alluded to in the Gospel of John. Paul recaps the words in I Corinthians. On the night in which he was betrayed, Jesus took bread, and blessed, and broke it, and
gave it to the disciples and said: "Take, eat, this is my body. And he took a cup, and when he had
given thanks he gave it to them, saying, Drink of it, all of you, for this is my blood of the new
The nature of the covenant was that it was a suzerainty covenant. It was given by God. Abram was the receiver of the covenant. His hope, his future, his confidence was based in the covenant that God gave, and Abram did nothing to gain or win the covenant. A New Covenant was foretold in the prophets. Jeremiah wrote, "Behold the days are coming, says the Lord, when I will make a new
covenant with the house of Israel and the house of Judah, not like the covenant which I made
with their fathers when I took them out of the land of Egypt, my covenant which they broke, The Christian era claims that the New Covenant was given. The prophets had foretold a new covenant that God would give in his own time. Jesus as the Incarnate Son gives the covenant and his blood, or his life, is the seal of the Covenant. Unlike the old covenant made with the blood of animals the new covenant is ratified by the blood of the eternal Son of God incarnate in Jesus, the Christ, and is an everlasting covenant, like the first covenant, this one was given, not gained by man or his substitute. In contrast, Calvin emphasizes that propitiation is necessary for man's sin to be
forgiven. This is to impose the words of Isaiah on the words of Jesus. If we are to think in
terms of propitiation we do violence to the idea of the covenant and the nature of its being "given," Propitiation means that God must be appeased before there can be forgiveness. One of the controversial passages relates to Romans 3:21-27 For example, one of the
defenders of Calvinism was Charles Hodge. He insisted on a penal view of the death of Jesus.
He declared that there are two great truths revealed in scripture: 1) "that God cannot pardon sin If Paul had been committed to the satisfaction of moral law as Calvin and Anselm proposed then it would seem Paul would have written something like this: "The righteousness of God has been met and the law has been observed in the death of Jesus for the sins of mankind. But it doesn't. Rather, the righteousness of God is expressed apart from the law. If there is grace, there is no need for satisfaction. If the death of Christ is a payment, then it is not a gift. If the death of Christ is a payment, there is no forgiveness. The word hilastrerion has been the issue. It can be translated as expiation or
propitation. Calvin and others have opted for propitiation in which the death of Jesus gains
something for sinners, while the word expiation can mean that the death of Jesus declares
something for the sinner. The word can refer to "mercy-seat" or the place of mercy in Christ, Much depends upon the meaning of the Greek word ‘ιλαστιον. The Interpreter's
Bible notes "Dodd has rendered a significant service in establishing the fact that in the LXX the
word rarely if ever occurs in the former of these senses (i.e., as a means of propitiating God, of The meaning of the death of Jesus is declared by Himself to be that of establishing the
new covenant with his life and death. The book of Hebrews builds on these passages.
The prophet Jeremiah is quoted extensively concerning the coming new covenant. That promised Is it possible to revise our understanding of the phrases in the New Testament from a
sacrificial context to a covenantal context. This event of the last supper could be summed in the simple phrase "the blood." I John 1:7 would reflect upon the blood (the covenantal promise of If however the covenant is a guarantee of forgiveness, then the grace of God has been manifested. Jesus taught us to forgive even 7 x 70. We are to forgive graciously because God forgives graciously. Jesus did not indicate that no forgiveness was possible before he paid the penalty for man's sin. The Lord‘s prayer incorporates forgiveness because God has forgiven. If we adopt the view that Christ's death is the foundation of a new covenant, we give
meaning to the book we call "the New Testament," we give real meaning to the words of Jesus,
and we can give new understanding to the Lord‘s Supper which continues to testify to a New
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